Question: Since ACA was passed in 2010, there have been many efforts to have the bill thrown out or at least watered down. Most attempts have been unsuccessful. However, one key element of ACA was successful, which was to:
Answer Options: a. eliminate health care exchanges., b. overturn expanded Medicaid availability., c. eliminate the tax penalty for the individual mandate., d. reduce Medicare spending to fund coverage for non-Medicare recipients., e. expand regulation of the private health insurance market.
Answer: c. eliminate the tax penalty for the individual mandate.
Question: A health insurance arrangement where individuals have access to health care in exchange for a set premium is called:
Answer Options: a. third-party payment system, b. managed care organization, c. accountable care organization (ACO), d. price discrimination system, e. price transparency system
Answer: b. managed care organization.
Question: The direct effect of a shortage of hospital beds in a hospital services market is:
Answer Options: a. upward pressure on the price of a hospital stay, b. downward pressure on the price of a hospital stay, c. a decrease in the demand for hospital beds, d. an increase in the supply of hospital beds, e. a construction boom to eliminate the shortage
Answer: a. upward pressure on the price of a hospital stay.
Question: How different is medical care from other commodities? Arrow (1963) based his thesis on a number of characteristics that contribute to the unique nature of medical care. All of the following characteristics were listed by Arrow, except:
Answer Options: a. Barriers to entry, b. Asymmetric information, c. Primary payment from insurance, d. Preponderance of not-for-profit providers, e. Trust
Answer: d. Preponderance of not-for-profit providers.
Question: Suppose you are a politician being criticized in a debate for your commitment to reducing the growth of medical spending. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
Answer Options: a. High health care spending is harmful to our economic well-being., b. There is empirical evidence that medical spending should be capped at 15 percent of GDP., c. Fixing treatment prices will lead to greater innovation., d. Reducing wasteful health care spending could provide additional funding to the education sector., e. Other developed nations spend far less of their GDP on health care.
Answer: d. Reducing wasteful health care spending could provide additional funding to the education sector.
Question: Suppose robotic technology improves the results of abdominal surgery—less time to perform the surgery, faster recovery times, and fewer mistakes. What is the impact of this new technology on the market for abdominal surgery?
Answer Options: a. Demand for robot-assisted surgery will increase, and prices will rise., b. Hospitals will be slow to adopt the new technology, fearing that it may result in lower prices., c. Demand for robot-assisted surgery will increase, and prices will fall., d. The demand for surgical assistants will increase.
Answer: c. Demand for robot-assisted surgery will increase, and prices will fall. Answer Options: a) Methanol gets very volatile at high temperature b) Sodium hydroxide is flammable c) The magnetic stirrer splashes base in all directions d) Produced biodiesel is explosive Correct Answer: a) Methanol gets very volatile at high temperature
Question: There is some remaining sodium hydroxide-methanol solution that we have to dispose of. This solution poses several hazards, which of the following does NOT apply for the sodium hydroxide-methanol solution?
Answer Options: a) Corrosive b) Explosive c) Flammable d) Toxic
Answer: b) Explosive
Question: Which of these hazards could be removed by adding small amounts of a certain solution?
Answer Options: a) Toxicity b) Corrosiveness c) Flammability d) Neither of them
Answer: b) Corrosiveness
Question: Imagine the two following scenarios: 1. You pour a small amount of non-halogenated solvent into the halogenated waste. 2. You pour a small amount of halogenated solvent into the non-halogenated waste. Which damage analysis is right?
Answer Options: a) They are equally bad b) Small amounts don’t matter – both are no problem c) 1. is worse than 2. d) 2. is worse than 1.
Answer: d) 2. is worse than 1.
Question: Which of the following solvents would be disposed in the halogenated solvent waste?
Answer Options: a) Hexane b) Acetone c) Ethanol d) Dichloromethane
Answer: d) Dichloromethane
Question: Marie: I passed out because of the blast. What happened after I was pulled out of the lab?
Answer Options: a) Evacuate the building b) Trigger alarm and break the circuit c) Close the fume hood d) Extinguish the fire
Answer: d) Extinguish the fire
Question: A client presents with the onset of a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. The nurse recognizes the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition?
Answer Options: A) Intracerebral hemorrhage, B) Rocky mountain spotted fever, C) Cerebrovascular accident (CVA), D) Meningococcal meningitis.
Answer: D) Meningococcal meningitis.
Question: A family suspects that AIDS dementia is occurring in their adult child who is HIV positive. Which symptom confirms the suspicion?
Answer Options: A) Refuses to see friends or to return their phone calls, B) Increased intervals of sleep 18 out of 24 hours, C) Exhibits angry outbursts when the subject of dying is approached, D) A change has recently occurred in handwriting.
Answer: D) A change has recently occurred in handwriting.
Question: An older adult client with symptoms of osteoarthritis asks the nurse which form of exercise would be most beneficial. Which is the best response by the nurse?
Answer Options: A) Jogging or running are excellent aerobic exercises, B) Tennis or racquetball will increase your muscle strength, C) Limit your exercise to just your daily activities, D) Swimming is an excellent exercise for you.
Answer: D) Swimming is an excellent exercise for you.
Question: The healthcare provider prescribes regular insulin 6 units/hr IV. The IV solution contains 100 units of regular insulin in 100 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride. How many mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump?
Answer Options: Enter numerical value only.
Answer: 6 mL/hr.
Question: Lactulose was prescribed two days ago for a client who was recently diagnosed with hepatic encephalopathy. The client is confused and experiencing frequent loose stools. Laboratory findings show an elevated serum ammonia (NH3) level of 220 µg/dL (157.1 µmol/dL). Which action should the nurse take?
Answer Options: A) Hold the next dose of lactulose, B) Replace total volume voided with oral or IV fluids, C) Continue the prescribed dose of lactulose, D) Report the number of diarrhea stools to the healthcare provider (HCP).
Answer: C) Continue the prescribed dose of lactulose.
Question: The nurse is caring for a client receiving thrombolytic therapy following an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Which nursing problem should the nurse identify as priority for this client?
Answer Options: A) Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis, B) Activity intolerance related to ischemia, C) Ineffective breathing pattern related to adverse drug effects, D) Deficient knowledge related to a new medication regimen.
Answer: A) Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis.
Question: The nurse is caring for a client who had an appendectomy 4 hours ago. Which finding requires immediate action by the nurse?
Answer Options: A) Apical heart rate of 100 to 110 beats/minute, B) High-pitched sound heard upon inspiration, C) Redness and edema noted at the incision site, D) Pain rating of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10.
Answer: D) Pain rating of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10.
Question: A postoperative client reports incisional pain. The client has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia that accompanied the client from the postanesthesia unit. Before selecting which medication to administer, which action should the nurse implement?
Answer Options: A) Compare the client’s pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing, B) Document the client’s report of pain in the electronic medical record, C) Ask the client to choose which medication is needed for the pain, D) Determine which prescription will have the quickest onset of action.
Answer: D) Determine which prescription will have the quickest onset of action.
Question: The client is a 68-year-old female with a history of diabetes mellitus, hypertension (HTN), coronary artery disease (CAD), and recently diagnosed with end stage renal disease (ERSD). She has been on hemodialysis three times a week for the last month. She presented to the emergency department with fatigue, generalized weakness, muscle cramps, tingling sensation in arms and legs, and lightheadedness following 3 days of illness during which her husband reported she had bouts of nausea and had a poor appetite and was not able to go for her scheduled dialysis. The client also reports that her doctor had recently started her on lisinopril for blood pressure control, but it doesn’t seem to help. She was diagnosed with hyperkalemia with potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L (5.9 mmol/L) and transferred to the intermediate medicine unit (IMU) for treatment and monitoring.
Answer Options: A) Draw potassium level STAT, B) Call the healthcare provider to notify changes in vital signs, C) Check blood glucose level STAT, D) Perform a focus cardiovascular assessment, E) Clarify order of lisinopril with the healthcare provider, F) Perform a 12 lead electrocardiogram (ECG) STAT, G) Teach client to take slow and deep breaths, H) Administer calcium gluconate STAT, I) Administer nausea medication, J) Request for more frequent blood glucose checks.
Answer: B) Call the healthcare provider to notify changes in vital signs, D) Perform a focus cardiovascular assessment, E) Clarify order of lisinopril with the healthcare provider, F) Perform a 12 lead electrocardiogram (ECG) STAT, H) Administer calcium gluconate STAT.
Question: In providing discharge teaching to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which instruction is most important for the nurse to emphasize?
Answer Options: A) Avoid going outdoors whenever the pollen count is high, B) Keep a food diary for one week and bring to next appointment, C) Notify the healthcare provider of any change in sputum color, D) Stay in the house if the outdoor temperature is hot and humid.
Answer: D) Stay in the house if the outdoor temperature is hot and humid.
Question: A client asks the nurse for information about how to reduce risk factors for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which information should the nurse provide?
Answer Options: A) Consume a high protein diet, B) Increase physical activity, C) Take vitamin supplements, D) Obtain a prostate-specific antigen blood level test.
Answer: B) Increase physical activity.
Question: A client with a cervical spinal injury (C7) is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse should first assess the client for which precipitating factor?
Answer Options: A) An acutely distended bladder, B) A severe pounding headache, C) Profuse forehead diaphoresis, D) Skeletal traction misalignment.
Answer: A) An acutely distended bladder.
Question: In assessing a client with skin ulcers on the lower extremity, which findings indicate that the ulcers are likely to be of venous, rather than arterial, origin?
Answer Options: A) Hairless lower extremities and cool feet, B) Absent pedal pulses and shiny skin, C) Irregular ulcer shapes and severe edema, D) Black ulcers and dependent rubor.
Answer: C) Irregular ulcer shapes and severe edema.
Question: The nurse is admitting a client with possible tuberculosis (TB). The client is placed in a private room with airborne precautions pending diagnostic test results. Which diagnostic test should the nurse review to confirm the diagnosis of TB?
Answer Options: A) Sputum culture positive for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, B) Hemoccult test on sputum collected from hemoptysis, C) Positive purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test, D) Chest x-ray or computed tomography (CT).
Answer: A) Sputum culture positive for Mycobacterium tuberculosis.